State Bank of India Clerk Exam., General English : Solved Paper

State Bank of India Clerk Exam.,General English : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while
answering some of the questions.
There was a girl who sang beautifully at the temple every morning. The music master
used to happily recall, “One day when I went into the woods to pluck flowers, I found
this baby under a pipal tree.” He picked her up carefully, raised her lovingly as if she
was his daughter and taught her to sing before she spoke her first word.
The music master grew old and didn't see too well. The girl tended to him caringly. Many
people including young men travelled from far and wide to hear her sing. This made the
music master's heart quake with fear. “You will choose one of them as your husband.
What is to become of me ?” The girl replied, “I shall not be apart from you.” But on a full
moon night during the harvest festival, the master's chief disciple touched his feet
reverently and said, “Master grant me your permission for your daughter has agreed to
marry me.” The master's tears flowed freely, “She has chosen well. Go and fetch her, let
me hear you sing the first of many melodies that you will sing together.” The two began
to sing in harmony. But the song was interrupted by the arrival of the royal messenger.
“Your daughter is very fortunate-the king has sent for her,” the messenger said. At the
palace the Queen summoned the girl to her and said, ”I place upon you the honour of
making sure my daughter is never unhappy at her husband's home.” There wasn't a single
tear in the girl's eyes but she thought of the master and her heart was heavy.
That very night the princess began her journey to Kambhoj. The princess's royal chariot
led the procession and the girl's palanquin followed close behind carrying trunks of silks,
jewellry and precious stones. It was covered with a velvet sheet and had soldiers on both
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sides. As the procession passed, the master and his disciple Kumarsen stood still by the
wayside. A collective sigh escaped the crowd gathered there wishing that the princess
wouldn't feel homesick in her faraway home.
1. Which of the following can be said about the girl ?
(1) She was brought up by her father as her mother had died when she was a baby.
(2) She was a talented singer who had learnt to sing at an early age.
(3) She was only allowed to sing with the master's permission.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
2. What was the girl's reaction to leaving home ?
(A) She was honoured to be serving the princess
(B) Sadness at leaving the master.
(C) She entrusted the task of looking after the music master to Kumarasen
(D) She was thrilled to be living in luxury
(E) None of these
3. What task was entrusted to the girl by the Queen ?
(A) Seeing that her daughter reached Kambhoj safely
(B) Entertaining the princess on her journey to Kambhoj
(C) Protecting the princess and reporting to the queen if she was unhappy
(D) Ensuring the princess' happiness
(E) None of these
4. What was the master's reaction to the girl's decision to marry his disciple ?
(A) He was upset and cried
(B) He promised to give his permission if the couple sang well together
(C) He was sad because she would be going to Kambhoj which was far away
(D) He was pleased with her choice of husband
(E) None of these
5. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage ?
(1) The girl was leaving the master and going to Kambhoj once she was married.
(2) The king sent for the girl because she was a good singer.
(3) The master did not let the girl study any other subject except music.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Both (1) and (2)
(C) All (1), (2) and (3)
(D) Both (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
6. Why was the princess going on a journey ?
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(1) She was going to her prospective husband's home to get engaged.
(2) Her parents wanted her to visit the kingdom of which she would be the future queen.
(3) To take expensive gifts for the rulers of the Kambhoj who were well known to her
parents.
(A) None
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Both (1) and (2)
(E) Both (2) and (3)
7. Why was the master afraid ?
(A) He felt the princess would treat the young girl unkindly
(B) He would be all alone after the girl's marriage
(C) The girl may not be able to adapt to her new home
(D) He was slowly going blind.
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 8–9) Choose the word which is MOST NEARLY the SAME in
MEANING as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
68. fortunate
(A) rich
(B) liked
(C) happy
(D) successful
(E) lucky
9. raised
(A) nurtured
(B) lifted
(C) grew
(D) built
(E) high
10. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word Collective as
used in the passage—
(A) alone
(B) separately
(C) united
(D) partial
(E) single
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
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11. In present the (A)/ prices of food grains (B)/ are high all (C)/ over the world. (D) No
error (E)
12. Majority of the banks (A)/ today uses technology (B)/ to reach out to those (C)/living
in rural areas. (D) No error (E)
13. I will give (A)/ you the advance (B)/ if you repay it as (C)/ soon as possibly. (D) No
error (E)
14. Though he is very (A)/ wealthy and powerful (B)/ he has any (C)/ concern for the
poor. (D) No error (E)
15. Mala has the (A)/ ability t o handle (B)/ many tasks at (C)/ the same time. (D) No
error (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrases given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and No correction
is required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. Finding himself in financial difficulty, he came forward me for help and advice—
(A) came across
(B) is come upto
(C) came to
(D) comes with
(E) No correction required
17. Deepak having been over eighteen years of age, is entitled to vote—
(A) has been of
(B) being over
(C) who is having over
(D) who is been
(E) No correction required
18. The magazine that we subscribe to is published monthly—
(A) which is subscribed
(B) we are subscribed
(C) whom we subscribe
(D) whichever we subscribe
(E) No correction required
19. Among of his many good qualities, that I remember is his honesty—
(A) All of his
(B) Some of the
(C) Only of his
(D) One of his
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(E) No correction required
20. Many of our clients have deposit of this foreign bank—
(A) have deposits in
(B) had deposited
(C) with deposits
(D) have deposited
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them.
(1) The sailor was told it was placed there as warning signal to sailors to warn them of the
danger.
(2) He returned to the spot a few years later as captain of his own ship.
(3) The ship was at sea for many days and finally anchored near the coastline.
(4) The night was stormy and without a warning signal his ship was wrecked on that very
rock.
(5) One of the sailors on board saw a bell tied to a dangerous submerged rock.
(6) As a joke the sailor decided to steal the bell and hide it despite being informed of this.
21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
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(D) (4)
(E) (5)
25. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words
printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of
that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.
26. We have incurred (A) an expense (B) of over fifty thousands (C) this year alone.
(D) All correct (E)
27. World Earth Day is celeberated (A) as a means (B) to make people aware (C) about
the environment. (D) All correct (E)
28. The key issue (A) discused (B) at the meeting was how to resolve (C) the food crisis.
(D) All correct (E)
29. He deserves (A) some recognition (B) for working diligently (C) for the passed (D)
five years. All correct (E)
30. There are many employment (A) opportunities (B) for fresh graduates (C) in the
market (D) today. All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five
words are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
I had …(31)… to become a multipurpose manager. I took three steps to accomplish this.
First, I took very …(32)… part in professional associations. I …(33)… the National
President of the Indian Society for Training and Development–one of the …(34)…
organizations for HR professionals. This helped me to grow professionally. My
communication skills …(35)…. It also taught me …(36)… to conduct meetings in an
effective manner. My job …(37)… me to different parts of the country and I …(38)…
believe that …(39)… provided me with an education. I also wrote a lot. Newspaper
editors often approached me with …(40)… to write articles for their publications.
P a g e | 38
31. (A) achieved
(B) aim
(C) try
(D) dreamed
(E) wanted
32. (A) selected
(B) active
(C) interesting
(D) often
(E) joint
33. (A) elected
(B) voted
(C) became
(D) applied
(E) decided
34. (A) respected
(B) status
(C) impressed
(D) aged
(E) common
35. (A) lacked
(B) grown
(C) learnt
(D) improved
(E) earned
36. (A) that
(B) why
(C) how
(D) never
(E) anyhow
37. (A) saw
(B) showed
(C) posted
(D) discovered
(E) took
38. (A) quiet
(B) firmly
(C) strong
(D) first
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(E) not
39. (A) travelling
(B) journey
(C) visit
(D) migrating
(E) shift
40. (A) wish
(B) offer
(C) appointments
(D) requests
(E) commands
===========================================
Answers with Explanations
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (E) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (E) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) Write ‘At’ in place of ‘In’.
12. (B) Write ‘use’.
13. (D) Write ‘possible’.
14. (C) Write ‘no’ in place of ‘any’.
15. (E) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (E) 19. (D)
20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (E) 23. (A) 24. (D)
25. (B)
26. (C) Write change ‘thousands’ to ‘thousand’.
27. (A) Write ‘celebrated’.
28. (B) Write ‘discussed’.
29. (D) Write ‘past’.
30. (E) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (A)
35. (D) 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (B) 39. (A)
40. (D)

Union Bank of India Probationary Officers Exam., English Language : Solved Paper

Union Bank of India Probationary
Officers Exam.,
English Language : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Over the past few decades, many Asian nations transformed from poverty into global
competitors. From 2003 to 2007, Asian economies expanded at an average annual rate of
8•1%, triple that of advanced economies. Over the same period, inflation in Asia
averaged only about 3•5%. But Asia could be facing turbulent economic times. In May,
the average inflation rate throughout the region reached nearly 7%, led by spikes in oil
and food prices. In India, inflation jumped to an 11•6% annual rate in June, according to
the latest government figures, the highest in 13 years.
Policymakers and central bankers are forced to raise interest rates and limit credit to get
inflation under control. But these same measures suppress the investment and
consumption that generates growth. The combination of slowing growth and soaring
inflation makes economic policy-making tricky. Inflation stirs up the middle classes
P a g e | 23
because it can quickly erase years of hardwon personal gains. Inflation is cruel to the
poor, because families have to spend a larger share of their meagre incomes on
necessities. In the Philippines, farmers, unable to afford fuel for tractors, use water
buffaloes to plough their fields.
But to avoid unrest, leaders cannot blindly adopt rigid anti-inflation measures. Voters
won’t hesitate to remove from office any politician who doesn’t deliver the goods. So
they cannot overreact to the inflation threat and scale down economic growth in the
process. Developing nations need to grow quickly to create jobs and increase incomes for
their large populations. With prices soaring, doing nothing is not an option. Most central
banks in Asia have started raising interest rates. The Reserve Bank of India increased its
benchmark rate twice last month to a six year high of 8•5%.
The challenge is especially difficult because currently, inflation is not of domestic origin.
Prices are being driven higher by a global surge in oil and food prices, which individual
governments can do little to control. Of course, inflation is not just a problem in Asia.
World Bank President Robert Zoellick called rising food and oil prices a man-made
‘catastrophe’ that could quickly reverse the gains made in overcoming poverty over the
past seven years. For now, though, there is more talk than action on the international
front, so Asian governments are on their own.
Even though inflation throughout the region is likely to continue to rise in coming
months, no one is expecting an economic calamity. According to the Asian Development
Bank Asian countries have large hard currency reserves and relatively healthy banks, and
so are far better prepared to absorb external shocks than they were during the region’s
last recession ten years ago. Asian policymakers have learned their lessons and are more
alert.
1. Which of the following can be said about Asian economies during the period from
2003- 2007 ?
1. Though inflation was rising at the time politicians did not pay much attention.
2. Many of the poor countries were able to compete internationally.
3. The growth rate of Asian countries was facilitated by growth in advanced countries.
(A) All 1, 2, and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following is not an anti-inflation measure being used by Asian countries
?
1. Increase in benchmark interest rate by a central bank.
2. Checks on lending.
3. Subsidising fuel for farmers.
(A) Only 3
(B) Both 1 and 2
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(C) Both 2 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
3. What makes it difficult for Asian countries to control inflation ?
(A) Restrictions by organizations like the Asian Development Bank
(B) Governments are indecisive and adopt counterproductive measures
(C) The problem is global in nature, not restricted to their individual countries
(D) Countries have never faced a financial crisis
(E) Economic growth rate cannot occur in the absence of inflation
4. Why are experts not very concerned about the impact of inflation on Asian economies
?
1. Asian countries have not maintained substantial hard currency reserves.
2. The condition of Asian banks is currently both stable and strong.
3. The Asian Development Bank will bail them out of any trouble.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
5. What is the author’s advice to politicians regarding the handling of inflation ?
(A) They should focus on preventing agitations among their citizens not implementing
antiinflation measures
(B) They ought to implement anti-inflation measures even at the cost of losing office
(C) They must focus on maintaining high economic growth rate as inflation will taper off
on its own
(D) Countries should handle the problem independently and not collectively
(E) None of these
6. What could the impact of stringent inflation measures be ?
(A) Increased consumption as families spend a larger part of their income on essential
goods
(B) Politicians may be voted out of power
(C) Economic growth rate remains constant
(D) Oil prices within the country remain stable despite high global prices
(E) None of these
7. Why is high economic growth necessary for developing countries ?
(A) To catch up with the growth rate of the advanced countries
(B) To sustain their economies despite the ill effects of inflation
(C) To provide better educational opportunities to their citizens
(D) To create employment opportunities for citizens
(E) None of these
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8. Why has inflation been referred to as a ‘catastrophe’ ?
(A) Prices of essential commodities are unaffordable for all
(B) Our past efforts to reduce poverty will be nullified
(C) Governments are unstable and do not take stringent decisions
(D) It has divided countries rather than ensuring co-operation among them
(E) None of these
9. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage ?
1. Growth rate in advanced countries was low so the effects of inflation were not felt.
2. Closing the economy to global markets will reduce inflation.
3. India has been the most severely affected by inflation.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
10. Which of the following factors was responsible for inflation in India ?
(A) Reserve Bank India raising the interest rates very frequently
(B) High population growth
(C) Sudden rise in prices of oil worldwide
(D) Reckless competition with China
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word
printed in bold as used in the passage.
11. stirs
(A) trembles
(B) moves
(C) mixes
(D) inspires
(E) agitates
12. scale
(A) descent
(B) climb
(C) hindrance
(D) cut
(E) measure
13. origin
(A) ancestry
(B) source
(C) inauguration
(D) down
P a g e | 26
(E) heritage
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the
word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. turbulent
(A) quiet
(B) rest
(C) soothes
(D) stormy
(E) lawful
15. gains
(A) decreases
(B) fails
(C) deprives
(D) frauds
(E) losses
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No
correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.
16. The main objective of the workshop has made children aware of Western classical
music.
(A) will make children aware
(B) is to make children aware
(C) is making aware children
(D) awareness of children
(E) No correction required
17. Afraid of missing her train and was late for the meeting, Sunita arrived an hour early
at the station.
(A) but later for
(B) and been late to
(C) after being late
(D) and being late for
(E) No correction required
18. As a famous historian he has travelled around the world giving lectures on rare
subjects.
(A) rarely to subjects
(B) of rare subject
(C) with rarest of subject
(D) in subjects rarely
P a g e | 27
(E) No correction required
19. The stadium wherever the opening ceremony will be held next month, is equipped
with the latest facilities.
(A) in the opening ceremony
(B) which the ceremony will open
(C) where the opening ceremony
(D) that the opening ceremony
(E) No correction required
20. There will be a trend of unseasonal rainfall in April, in recent years.
(A) There has been
(B) It has been
(C) There is being
(D) It may have been
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces.
Below each five pairs of words have been denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E).
Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same
sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
21. A committee has been…………..to…………..the transformation of the city into an
international finance centre.
(A) constituted, convert
(B) appointed, oversee
(C) converged, evaluate
(D) inducted, change
(E) inaugurated, determine
22. Keeping in mind the…………..to develop the sector the government has…………..
solicited foreign investment.
(A) importance, never
(B) proposal, forcibly
(C) objective, wanted
(D) view, discretely
(E) need, actively
23. In his speech he vowed to…………..the four billion unbanked individuals across the
world into the…………..of financial inclusion.
(A) represent, sphere
(B) target, area
(C) bring, realm
(D) engage, achievement
(E) convince, era
P a g e | 28
24. Although he puts in…………..of overtime and takes few holidays,
he…………..cannot support his family.
(A) sufficient, however
(B) lot, besides
(C) much, thus
(D) plenty, still
(E) frequency, yet
25. They have been…………..on incentives to…………..these practices are implemented
at grass root level.
(A) relying, ensure
(B) improving, secure
(C) advocating, confirm
(D) debating, necessitate
(E) focusing, display
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
given below them—
1. It was a cycling race launched in 1903, by Henri Desgrange, a magazine editor in
Paris.
2. The Tour de France is a test of human endurance.
3. His idea worked and the magazine boomed.
4. His aim was to boost the circulation of his magazine.
5. He wanted to achieve this by covering every stage of the three week long, 3,500
kilometre long cycling race.
6. Till today the race remains more popular than he could ever have dreamed.
26. Which of the following should be the first sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
27. Which of the following should be the second sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
28. Which of the following should be the third sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
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(D) 4
(E) 5
29. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
30. Which of the following should be the sixth (Last) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
letters of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.)
31. On account of the week (A) / long strike the factory (B) / was forced to close and (C)
/ next month’s shipment will delay. (D) No error. (E)
32. Since the US economy experiences (A) / a recession many Asian countries (B) / are
likely to have (C) / reduced growth rates this year. (D) No error. (E)
33. Oil is now so expensive that (A) / India will have to cut subsidies (B) / instead face
running out (C) / of funds to import oil. (D) No error. (E)
34. It is unlikely that you will (A) / find a more qualified and experience (B) / candidate
than Mr. Prasad (C) / for the post of President. (D) No error. (E)
35. On account of the rising (A) / costs many people are (B) / finding it difficult (C) / to
feed their families. (D) No error. (E)
36. By marketing agriculture (A) / products well, we (B) / can ensure that (C) / farmers
make a good profit. (D) No error. (E)
37. The promotion means (A) /that you may be (B) / post in Chennai (C) / from next
month. (D) No error. (E)
38. This project is (A) / too big to (B) / undertake successfully at (C) / such short of
notice. (D) No error. (E)
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39. When our company was (A) / faced financial difficulties (B) / the training budget was
(C) / the first to be cut. (D) No error. (E)
40. Conservationists believe that (A)/better management of national parks (B)/is the only
way to save (C)/India’s tiger population from extinction. (D) No error. (E)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
In July 2008, one of the most inspiring leaders of our times, will …(41)… his ninetieth
birthday. Nelson Mandela retired from politics in 1999, but he has remained …(42)…,
continuing his work through the Nelson Mandela Foundation. The foundation has
launched an Aids awareness campaign, 46664, named …(43)… Mandela’s prison
number. He has also set up a scholarship programme whose …(44)… was to promote
leadership among young Africans.
During the 1990s, …(45)… I worked with Mr. Mandela on his autobiography “Long
Walk to Freedom”, I …(46)… his leadership first hand. During his election campaign we
were on board a plane discussing his book. Twenty minutes …(47)… to landing the
engine failed. Many began to panic. The only thing that …(48)… them was looking at
Mandela, who was reading his paper as if he was a passenger on a morning train to work.
The plane landed safely and when we got into the car taking us to the hotel he …(49)…
to me, “I was terrified on the plane !” As a leader he realized he was a model for others
and this gave him the strength to …(50)… over his own fear.
41. (A) tribute
(B) remember
(C) honour
(D) celebrate
(E) rejoice
42. (A) resigned
(B) active
(C) influenced
(D) participant
(E) reserved
43. (A) by
(B) with
(C) after
(D) as
(E) thereafter
44. (A) wish
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(B) pursuit
(C) result
(D) plot
(E) aim
45. (A) when
(B) that
(C) period
(D) later
(E) alongside
46. (A) felt
(B) acquainted
(C) experienced
(D) underwent
(E) learned
47. (A) before
(B) sooner
(C) close
(D) prior
(E) advance
48. (A) calmed
(B) soothing
(C) composed
(D) restraint
(E) discipline
49. (A) speaks
(B) confided
(C) confidentially
(D) entrusted
(E) assured
50. (A) success
(B) overcame
(C) dominate
(D) victory
(E) triumph
==============================================================
Answers :
1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (E) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (E)
16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (E) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (E)
36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (E)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (A)
46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (E)

General English : Solved Paper State Bank of India Clerk Exam.,

State Bank of India Clerk Exam.,
General English : Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 41–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions. The yearly festival was close at hand. The store room was packed with silk fabrics. gold ornaments, clay bowls full of sweet curd and platefuls of sweetmeats. The orders had been placed with shops well in advance. The mother was sending out gifts to everyone. The eldest son, a government servant, lived with his wife and children in far off lands. The second son had left home at an early age. As a merchant he travelled all over the
world. The other sons had split up over petty squabbles, and they now lived in homes of their own. The relatives were spread all across the world. They rarely visited. The youngest son, left in the company of a servant, was soon bored and stood at the door all day long, waiting and watching. His mother, thrilled and excited, loaded the presents on trays and plates, covered them with colourful kerchiefs, and sent them off with maids and servants. The neighbours looked on. The day came to an end. All the presents had been sent off.
The child came back into the house and dejectedly said to his mother, “Maa, you gave a present to everyone, but you didn’t give me anything !” His mother laughed, “I have given all the gifts away to everyone, now see what’s left for you.” She kissed him on the forehead. The child said in a tearful voice, “Don’t I get a gift ?” “You’ll get it when you go far away.” “But when I am close to you, don’t I get something from your own hands ?” His mother reached out her arms and drew him to her. “This is all I have in my own hands. It is the most precious of all.”

41. Why did the woman's second son travel ?
(A) He was restless by nature
(B) He did not want to stay at home
(C) He was rich and could afford to travel
P a g e | 16
(D) His job was such that he had to travel
(E) None of these
42. Why did the woman’s eldest son not attend the festival ?
(A) He was not on good terms with his youngest brother who lived at home
(B) He had quarrelled with his mother
(C) His wife did not allow him to return home
(D) His job prevented him from taking leave
(E) None of these
43. How did the woman prepare for the festival ?
1. She bought expensive gifts for her children and neighbours.
2. She ordered her servants to prepare sweets and food well in advance.
3. She made sure that her youngest child was looked after so that he wouldn’t be bored.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
44. What did the youngest child do while his mother was busy ?
1. He waited for a chance to steal some sweetmeats.
2. He pestered his mother to give him a present.
3. He stood at the door with servants.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following can be said about the woman ?
(A) She was a widow who had brought up her children single handedly
(B) She was not a good mother since her children had left home at an early age
(C) She enjoyed sending her family gifts at festival time
(D) She gave expensive presents to show that she was wealthy
(E) She rarely visited her grand-children because they all lived abroad
46. What did the boy receive from his mother ?
(A) She taught him the value of patience
(B) She encouraged him to grow up and live independently like his brothers
(C) She showed him the importance of giving expensive gifts
(D) She gave him a hug to express her love
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The woman usually ignored her youngest son
P a g e | 17
(B) The woman’s eldest son lived abroad
(C) The members of the woman’s family did not care about her
(D) The woman made all the preparations herself since she did not want to burden the
servants
(E) The woman sent gifts to her children to ensure that they visited her
Directions—(Q. 48–49) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as
the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
48. Left
(A) Gone
(B) Quit
(C) Remaining
(D) Disappeared
(E) Forgot
49. Packed
(A) Filled
(B) Squeezed
(C) Crowd
(D) Collected
(E) Untidy
50. Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word dejectedly as
used in the passage.
(A) Calmly
(B) Happily
(C) Willingly
(D) Fortunately
(E) Softly
Directions—(Q. 51–55) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer.
If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)
51. Many multinational companies (A) / have not been as (B) /successful in India (C)
/than we expected. (D) No error (E)
52. He has ruined (A) /his eyesight (B) /by not using (C) /his spectacles regularly. (D) No
error (E)
53. Mostly of the (A) /newly recruited officers (B) /have no experience (C) /in the
banking sector. (D) No error (E)
54. The resignation of (A) /one of our directors (B) /have caused the price (C) / of shares
to fall. (D) No error (E)
P a g e | 18
55. There are many (A) /ways of which (B) /inflation can (C) /be measured. (D) No error
(E)
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should
replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No
correction is required.’ mark (E) as the answer.
56. Each of the loan must be approved by the Branch Manager—
(A) Every loan
(B) Each one of the loan
(C) Any of the loan
(D) All of the loan
(E) No correction required
57. The issue was taken before the Municipal Corporation meeting last week—
(A) Taking place at
(B) Taken after
(C) Being taken in
(D) Taken up at
(E) No correction required
58. He has asked for the names of those employees involved in the project.
(A) had asked
(B) having asked about
(C) was asked that
(D) is asking
(E) no correction required
59. Considerate the traffic, it is better to leave for the airport an hour early—
(A) While considering
(B) Consideration of
(C) Considering
(D) Being considerate to
(E) No correction required
60. He is a good leader, knowing that to motivate his employees to achieve—
(A) That known when
(B) Who knows how
(C) Which knows how
(D) Knowing what
(E) No correction required
Directions—(Q. 61–65) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and
(6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions
P a g e | 19
given below them.
(1) The able bodied men of the tribe gathered to discuss how to climb the mountain.
(2) As part of their plundering they kidnapped a baby of one of the families.
(3) One day the mountain tribe invaded those living in the valley.
(4) “We couldn’t climb the mountain. How could you?”, they asked, “It wasn’t your baby
!” she replied.
(5) There were two tribes in the Andes–one lived in the valley and the other high up in
the mountains.
(6) Two days later they noticed the child’s mother coming down the mountain that they
hadn’t yet figured out how to climb.
61. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (6)
(B) (5)
(C) (4)
(D) (3)
(E) (2)
63. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
64. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
65. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (1)
(B) (2)
(C) (3)
(D) (4)
(E) (5)
P a g e | 20
Directions—(Q. 66–70) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in
bold type is given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words
printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the
sentence. Find out the word, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of
that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also
appropriate in the context of the sentence mark (E) i.e., all correct as your answer.
66. The income (A) of many people in rural (B) India is not adequate (C) to satisfy (D)
their basic needs. All correct (E)
67. He is always (A) prompt (B) in caring (C) out instructions. (D) All correct (E)
68. The revized (A) rates (B) of interest will be effective (C) immediately. (D) All
correct (E)
69. Such transactions (A) are quiet (B) expensive (C) and time consuming (D) for
customers. All correct (E)
70. The guidelines (A) of the new scheme (B) are expected (C) to be finally (D) soon.
All correct (E)
Directions—(Q. 71–80) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words/
phrases are suggested one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate
word in each case.
I used to look …(71)… to the holidays. I was usually …(72)… to my uncle’s house
where I …(73)… his children. I did not get paid a salary for …(74)… What I received in
return however, was far more …(75)… My uncle was an avid reader. During the time I
spent with his family I had an …(76)… to read the vast amount of books and magazines
that he possessed. This improved my English to some …(77)… Reading became my new
…(78–79)… spending my pocket money on a ticket to the cinema I began to …(80)…
books. This has benefited me greatly.
71. (A) forward
(B) towards
(C) backward
(D) up
(E) around
72. (A) went
(B) sent
(C) visited
(D) travelled
(E) gone
P a g e | 21
73. (A) cared
(B) occupy
(C) guarded
(D) taught
(E) played
74. (A) them
(B) whom
(C) this
(D) now
(E) which
75. (A) expensive
(B) deserving
(C) helping
(D) demanding
(E) valuable
76. (A) opportunity
(B) ability
(C) use
(D) encouragement
(E) achievement
77. (A) distance
(B) extent
(C) time
(D) limits
(E) degrees
78. (A) activity
(B) hope
(C) hobby
(D) duty
(E) worship
79. (A) despite
(B) though
(C) by
(D) instead of
(E) while
80. (A) sell
(B) read
(C) exchange
P a g e | 22
(D) invest
(E) buy
==================================================================
Answers:
41. (D) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (D)
45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (B)
48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (C)
51. (D) Replace ‘than’ with ‘as’.
52. (E)
53. (A) Change ‘Mostly’ to ‘Most’.
54. (C) Change ‘have’ to ‘has’.
55. (B) Replace ‘of’ with ‘in’.
56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (E) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (E) 64. (D) 65. (B)
66. (E) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (E) 70. (D)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (E)
76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (D) 80. (E)

Reasoning : Solved Paper Union Bank of India ProbationaryOfficers Exam.

Union Bank of India ProbationaryOfficers Exam., 2008
Reasoning : Solved Paper
(Held on 7-9-2008)

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27
3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is
LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these
5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related
to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK
P a g e | 2
(E) None of these
6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in
descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in
that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja
(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following
five numbers ?
P a g e | 3
254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9
12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th
July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but
before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many
students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D
scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who
among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :
P a g e | 4
(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.
16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.
17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.
18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.
Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.
19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.
20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.
P a g e | 5
21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.
22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below—
B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T I 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y
23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of
the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these
24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?
P a g e | 6
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will
be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these
28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols
followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find
out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on
the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer.
If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark
(E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L
Conditions :
(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to
be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
P a g e | 7
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.
30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these
31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these
32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these
33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these
34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these
35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these
36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT
P a g e | 8
(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are
used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.
In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out
which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give
answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T
Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H
P a g e | 9
43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V
Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given
below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the
left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the
right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.
44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate
47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate
48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the
P a g e | 10
third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are
given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the
following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The
operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even
number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be
divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted
from the first number.
50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these
51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these
52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
P a g e | 11
(E) None of these
53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these
54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these
55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read
both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased
over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the
previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.
P a g e | 12
II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways.
58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the
annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual
examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.
60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food
habits.
==============================================================
Answers with Hints
1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 98765 4
11. (D) 963, 8 4 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B # A R E % M F J U @ H © T I * W P # K $ Y
11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)
P a g e | 14
56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)

General Socio-Economic & Banking Awareness - Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam., 2008

Bank of Baroda Probationary Officers Exam., 2008
(Held on 5-10-2008)
General Socio-Economic & Banking Awareness : Solved Paper

1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate—
(A) Liquidity in the economy
(B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation
(D) Borrowing power of the banks
(E) All the above
2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with each other
under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as—
(A) Participation
(B) Consortium
(C) Syndication
(D) Multiple banking
(E) None of these
3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the
economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these
4. The bank rate means—
(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
(E) None of these
5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ?
(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying
equity shares of the issuing company
(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(E) None of these
6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is
known as—
(A) Derivative
(B) Securitisation Receipts
(C) Hedge Fund
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
7. Fiscal deficit is—
(A) total income less Govt. borrowing
(B) total payments less total receipts
(C) total payments less capital receipts
(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(E) None of these
8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to—
(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(D) variation in different markets
(E) Any of the above
9. Reverse repo means—
(A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities
(C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate
(D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(E) Any of the above
10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is—
(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(B) improving credit quality of the Banks
(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(D) supporting investment demand in the economy
(E) Any of the above
11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage—
(A) Currency risk
(B) interest rate risk
(C) currency and interest rate risk
(D) cash flows in different currencies
(E) All of the above
12. ‘Sub-prime’ refers to—
(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac
(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally
required credit appraisal standards
(E) All of the above
13. Euro Bond is an instrument—
(A) issued in the European market
(B) issued in Euro Currency
(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
14. Money Laundering normally involves—
(A) placement of funds
(B) layering of funds
(C) integration of funds
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)
15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to—
(A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous
global economy
(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)
16. Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI
17. In the term BRIC, R stands for—
(A) Romania
(B) Rajithan
(C) Russia
(D) Regulation
(E) None of these
18. FDI refers to—
(A) Fixed Deposit Interest
(B) Fixed Deposit Investment
(C) Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Future Derivative Investment
(E) None of these
19. What is Call Money ?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these
20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these
21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these
22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ?
(A) Juhi Chawla
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these
23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is—
(A) International Bank of India
(B) India’s International Bank
(C) India’s Multinational Bank
(D) World’s local Bank
(E) None of these
24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as—
(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda
(B) Baroda Sun
(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays
(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close
competitor of India ?
(i) China’s economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich nations like
the USA, etc.
(ii) In the year 2007 China’s exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(iii) When compared to India China’s share in the World Exports is more than 30% whereas India’s
share is mere 6% of the global exports.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of
the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?
(A) Know Your Customer Norms
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) None of these
27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the
full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’ ?
(A) Money
(B) Marginal
(C) Message
(D) Mutual Fund
(E) Mobile Phone
28. Which of the following is/are true about the ‘Sub-Prime Crisis’ ? (The term was very much in news
recently.)
(i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers.
(ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers.
(iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ?
(A) Industrial Finance
(B) Agricultural Finance
(C) Government Finance
(D) Development Finance
(E) Personal Finance
30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Public Sector Banks
(C) Private Sector Banks
(D) Regional Rural Banks
(E) State Co-operative Banks
31. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the
following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services
(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these
32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were
established with which of the following objectives ?
(i) To attract foreign investment directly.
(ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon
every year ?
(A) US, China, India, South Africa
(B) India, China, Russia, Britain
(C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
(D) US, Russia, China & India
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Nuclear Bank’ floated by International
Atomic Energy Agency ?
(i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the nations.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) only
(D) Only (iii)
(E) Both (i) and (ii) only
35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is ‘Future Trading’ ?
(i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to purchase the
stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future at a
predetermined price.
(iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under
any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
36. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ?
(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Gross Domestic Product
(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(E) None of these
37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the
venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were
trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders ?
(i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(iii) USA’s consistent presence in Iraq.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii) only
(E) None of these
38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following
for the next President of USA ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Barack Obama
(C) John McCain
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) None of these
39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the—
(A) President of Congo
(B) Prime Minister of Uganda
(C) President of Venezuela
(D) Prime Minister of Brazil
(E) None of these
40. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the
amount is nearly—
(A) Rs. 60,000 crore
(B) Rs. 65,000 crore
(C) Rs. 72,000 crore
(D) Rs. 76,000 crore
(E) Rs. 80,000 crore
41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise.
When is the next Census due ?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2015
42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be
banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Alcoholic drinks
(C) Junk Food
(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to
its earthquake victims ?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these
44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the
following rivers is not covered under these agreements ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Gandak
(C) Ganga
(D) Mahakali
(E) All these rivers are covered
45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other
country ?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) NLS - 5
(C) RUBIN - 8
(D) GSLV
(E) SCOPE
46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
(E) Golf
47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch ?
(A) Journey of Harmony
(B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace
(D) Journey for Hunger-free World
(E) None of these
48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) All are social schemes
49. Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Britain
(E) Singapore
50. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Kalinga Prize
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these
___________________________________________

Answers :
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (E) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (E) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (E) 27. (E) 28. (D) 29. (E) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C)