IBPS PAPERS -Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper

IBPS PAPERS -Allahabad Bank Exam Sample Paper
2008
General Awareness
1. India test-fired Agni III on—
(A) May 15, 2008
(B) May 17, 2008
(C) May 20, 2008
(D) May 7, 2008
2. Which one of the following countries is not included in the elite club which India joined after its successful test firing of Agni III—(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) U.K.
(D) France
3. M. Natrajan is—
(A) Scientific Advisor to the Defence Minister
(B) Chief Controller and Programme Director of Agni Missile System
(C) Scientific Advisor to the Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
4. Currently which one of the following organizations is celebrating its golden jubilee (year) ?(A) ISRO
(B) CBI
(C) DRDO
(D) NASSCOM
5. India and Malaysia held their joint naval exercise at—
(A) Andman island
(B) Nicobar island
(C) Lumut
(D) Kualalampur
6. SERB stands for—
(A) Social Enlightenment and Research Board
(B) Scientific And Engineering Research Board
(C) Scientists’ and Engineers’ Research Board
(D) Science and Engineering Research Board
7. CEP (Circular Error Probability) is associated with—
(A) Prithvi II
(B) Chandryan I
(C) Narco Analysis test conducted on Aarushis’ alleged murderer
(D) The finalization of Indo-US Nuclear deal
8. The country which recently announced to have its own version of Star Wars—
(A) France
(B) Japan
(C) China
(D) North Korea
9. The Indian state which, in May 2008, launched Food Security Scheme—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jammu & Kashmir
10. The most coveted award at the 61st Cannes Film Festival was received by—
(A) ‘Hunger’
(B) Line of Passage
(C) ‘The Class’
(D) Three Monkeys
11. The Winner of the Scripps National Spelling Bee Contest is—
(A) Ravi Kumar
(B) Sameer Mishra
(C) Kuljit Singh
(D) None of these
12. ‘Travelling Through Conflict’ is a book written by—
(A) Hamid Ansari
(B) Cherie Blair
(C) Balraj Krishna
(D) Salman Rushdie
13. According to the Global Peace Index released in May 2008, the most peaceful country on the earth is—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Norway
(C) Denmark
(D) Iceland
14. Which of the following was recently granted Navratna status to ?
(A) PGCIL
(B) REC
(C) NALCO
(D) All the above
15. In terms of billionnaire population. Mumbai ranks…… at world level ?
(A) Sixth
(B) Fifth
(C) Fourth
(D) Seventh
16. According to a report, the number of Indians who have a problem of loud snoring during sleep is—
(A) 35 million
(B) 36 million
(C) 40 million
(D) 45 million
17. The government has planned to establish ………… universities of global standards across the country ?(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 20
(D) 16
18. The government has increased Minimum Support Price of—
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Cane
(D) None of these
19. India recently refused to accept the offer of funds/loans from World Bank for— (A) Disaster management
(B) North-East projects
(C) Tiger protection
(D) None of the above
20. Yves Saint Laurent recently died. He was a—
(A) U.S.A. film director
(B) First man to go to Mars mission
(C) Renowned fashion designer
(D) An internationally renowned financial expert
Answers1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20 (C)

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009
 RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

(Held on 7th june 2009)
Reasoning
Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these
2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient
3. Who is third to the G’s left?
(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D
4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV
English language
Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
6.
(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement
Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous
Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail
13.ASSURANCE
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail
14. ACCESS
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced
Maths/physics
16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?
(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r
18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
is?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500
20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21
24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m
28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°
30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit
31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105
36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h
39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these
40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these
Ans:
1:D 2:A 3:B 4:A 5:B 6:B
7:C 8:A 9:B 10:C 11:A 12:B
13:B 14:A 15:B 16:A 17:A 18:B
19:B 20:C 21:D 22::B 23:C 24:C
25:D 26:A 27:D 28:D 29:D 30:D
31:A 32:B 33:C 34:A 35:D 36:B
37:A 38:A 39:D 40:D 228 persons

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
Answer: C
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B
12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B
16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:
36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
Matching:
57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D
58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

Bank PO Numerical Ability Sample Paper

Bank PO Numerical Ability Sample Paper

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 25 minutes
(c) 28 minutes
(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096
(b) 8192
(c) 512
(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
    10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100
(b) 103
(c) 78
(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and     reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14.  What is the figure?
    (a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
    (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
    (a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
    (a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
    (a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
     (a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
     (a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
     (a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
     (a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
     (a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
     (a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
     (a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
     (a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
     (a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
     (a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
     (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
     (a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3
     (c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
     (a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
     (a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
     (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
     (a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
     (a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes
     (c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
     (a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
     (a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
    (a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
     (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
     (a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
     (a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
     (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
     (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
     (a) Interior of the triangle
     (b) Midpoint of the diameter
     (c) Exterior of the triangle
     (d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
     (a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
     (a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
     (a) 3r (b) 4r (c) √5r (d) √3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
     (a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3√2, 6, 6√2 ?
     (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) √2 (d) √3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
     (a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
     (a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
     (a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
     (a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
     (a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
     (a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
     (a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
     (a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
     (a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
     (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 D 41 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 D 42 A
3 A 13 D 23 A 33 B 43 B
4 B 14 D 24 C 34 D 44 C
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C 45 A
6 B 16 C 26 A 36 D 46 C
7 C 17 D 27 B 37 B 47 B
8 D 18 A 28 D 38 C 48 D
9 C 19 C 29 C 39 C 49 B
10 B 20 B 30 B 40 C 50 B

SBI CLERK QUESTION PAPER - GK

SBI CLERK QUESTION PAPER - GK 
1. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
ANS : a
2. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
ANS : a
3.  ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
ANS : c
4. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
ANS : c
5. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
ANS :c
6. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?
a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
ANS : b
7. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
ANS : d
8. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
ANS : d
9. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
ANS : b
10. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
ANS : c
11. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) Smuggling
ANS : c
12. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
ANS : a
13. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
ANS : b
14. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
ANS : c
15. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
ANS : b
16. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
ANS : d
17. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Joseph
c) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
ANS : c
18. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c
19) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the glories of Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
ANS : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya
20. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
ANS : c
21. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
ANS : b
22. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month voyage around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhuti
b) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
ANS : b
23) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
ANS : c
24) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
ANS : a
25) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
ANS : d
26) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a